Instrument Rating FAA Practice Test

Instrument Rating FAA Practice Test

Check out these 12 practice test questions from the Private Pilot Written Exam. You may see the questions change each time you take the quiz (only 15 questions from this smaller test bank are displayed at a time).

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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?
- The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb.
- The gyroscopic instruments to become inoperative.
- The altimeter and airspeed indicator to become inoperative.
Correct
Incorrect
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?
- Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting.
- Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.
- Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With current temperature and the altimeter indication, determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the field elevation.
Correct
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level-off by approximately
- 30% of the vertical speed.
- 50 percent of the vertical speed.
- 10% of the vertical speed.
Correct
Incorrect
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
When flying directly over a published airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maximum error allowed for IFR flight?
- Plus or minus 6 degrees of the designated radial.
- Plus 6 degrees or minus 4 degrees of the designated radial.
- Plus or minus 4 degrees of the designated radial.
Correct
Incorrect
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?
- 2 NM.
- 3 NM.
- 5 NM.
Correct
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Refer to the diagrams below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “C” correspond?
- 6
- 7
- 12
Correct
Incorrect
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
During IFR en route and terminal operations using an approved TS0-C129 or TS0-C196 GPS system for navigation, ground based navigational facilities
- must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage.
- must be operational along the entire route.
- are only required during the approach portion of the flight.
Correct
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
While conducting a GPS approach, if you disengage the auto sensitivity, what will occur?
- The altitude mode will disengage.
- The approach mode annunciation will disengage.
- The altitude and heading modes will disengage.
Correct
Incorrect
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions?
- The indicated airspeed would show a continuous deceleration while climbing.
- The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero.
- No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase.
Correct
Incorrect
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours?
- 5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
- 3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.
- 5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.
Correct
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?
- NTSB Part 830.
- 14 CFR Part 91.
- 14 CFR Part 61.
Correct
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is
- permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway.
- permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
- required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure.
Correct
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
Refer to the diagram below. A pilot receives the ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
- Parallel only.
- Teardrop only.
- Direct only.
Correct
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within
- the 1-minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.
- a radius of 5 miles from the holding fix.
- 10 knots of the specified holding speed.
Correct
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
Which is true regarding STARs?
- STARs are used to separate IFR and VFR traffic.
- STARs are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures.
Correct
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
Refer to the diagram below. Which restriction to the use of the OED VORTAC would be applicable to the (GNATS6.MOURN) departure?
- R-295 beyond 35 NM below 8,500 feet.
- R-210 beyond 35 NM below 8,500 feet.
- R-265 within 15 NM below 9,000 feet.
Correct
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
Refer to the diagrams below. Which frequency would you anticipate using to contact Regional Approach Control? (GLEN ROSE NINE ARRIVAL).
- 123.775
- 115.0
- 119.87
Correct
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation?
METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 OO/M03 A2991 RMK RERAE42SNB42
- Runway 31 ceiling is 2,700 feet.
- Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet.
- Measured ceiling is 300 feet overcast.
Correct
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
What determines how icing is reported on a PIREP?
- Type of ice.
- Thickness of ice.
- Rate of accumulation.
Correct
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
Winds at 5,000 feet AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
- a stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
- friction between the wind and the surface.
- stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
Correct
Incorrect